Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 05:25
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Has any man licked his wife's vagina while another man had sex with her?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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You'll usually find your answer there.